[NBLUG/talk] OT division by zero OT

[Steve Zimmerman]

On Friday 30 May 2003 09:06 am, Cal Herrmann wrote:
> Apologies for another comment, but would this help the understanding?

No need to apologize, Cal.  I appreciate your participation.  *smile*

> Consider the limit of 1/x as x increases toward infinity.  Would the
> value of 1/x approach zero?

Steve1:  1 is infinitely divisible, therefore lim {x -> inf} 1/x = inf.

Steve2:  Yes, but then the graph of 1/x is discontinuous, and therefore
               not a function, and if not a function, then not amenable to the
	 limit theorem.

Steve1:  Correct.  We are taught in calculus that the limit theorem only
	 works on functions, and functions are, by definition,
	 continuous.

Steve2:  Do you get the feeling that the mathematical conventions of
  	 calculus were invented ad hoc to support certain ideas that
	 were not amenable to proof?

Steve1:  Yes.

> This is the inverse of the posed problem, but should have a consistent
> result. If 1/"infinity" is zero,      
		  
1/"infinity" != 0.  1 is infinitely divisible, therefore 1/"infinity" = 
"infinity".

Thank you for your post, Cal.

Best wishes,

	-- Steve Zimmerman